UPSC Prelims 2013 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2013 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Quit India Movement was launched in response to:
Detailed Explanation:
The Quit India Movement was launched on 8 August 1942 in direct response to the failure of the Cripps Proposals (March 1942).
The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, offered dominion status after World War II and the right to frame a constitution, but rejected immediate independence and allowed provinces to opt out – both Congress and Muslim League rejected these inadequate proposals.
The Simon Commission (1928), Wavell Plan (1945), and Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) occurred in different time periods, making them irrelevant to the 1942 movement.
Annie Besant was:
- Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
- The founder of the Theosophical Society
- Once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Annie Besant founded the Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras, demanding self-government for India within the British Empire, alongside Tilak's Home Rule League (April 1916).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Theosophical Society was founded in 1875 in New York by Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel H.S. Olcott. Annie Besant became its President in 1907 but was not the founder.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Annie Besant was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Calcutta Session in 1917, becoming the first woman to hold this position.
With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:
Detailed Explanation:
Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies using the single transferable vote system of proportional representation.
The Assembly was indirectly elected, not directly elected by the people, and members were not nominated by political parties or selected by the Government for expertise.
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The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the:
Detailed Explanation:
The Ilbert Bill (1883) was introduced by Lord Ripon's government to remove the judicial disqualification that prevented Indian magistrates and sessions judges from trying European British subjects in criminal cases.
The bill aimed to eliminate racial discrimination in the judiciary, but faced massive opposition from the European community in India, leading to its withdrawal in a diluted form.
The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
Detailed Explanation:
The Simon Commission (1927) was appointed to review the working of the Government of India Act, 1919.
The commission consisted of seven British Members of Parliament with no Indian members, leading to widespread protests with the slogan "Simon Go Back" as Indians viewed this all-white composition as an insult to their self-respect and demand for self-determination.
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- National Development Council
- Planning Commission
- Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 by an executive resolution and is not mentioned in the Constitution.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Planning Commission was set up in March 1950 through an executive resolution; it was a non-constitutional, non-statutory body (replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015).
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 and are not mentioned in the Constitution.
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 109 of the Constitution governs the procedure for Money Bills in Parliament.
When the Rajya Sabha receives a Money Bill, it can only recommend amendments within 14 days but has no power to reject or substantially amend it.
The Lok Sabha has absolute discretion to accept or reject any recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha.
If the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed in its original form by both Houses.
There is no provision for joint sitting or sending the Bill back for reconsideration in case of Money Bills.
Consider the following statements
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not just Lok Sabha.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Amendments affecting the federal character require ratification by legislatures of at least half of the states, not all states.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The 7th Constitutional Amendment (1956) permits the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States simultaneously.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President of India (after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, Governor, and Chief Justice of the concerned High Court), not by the Governor.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Constitution does not prescribe any specific procedure for removal of a Governor; Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: In Union Territories with legislative assemblies (Delhi, Puducherry), the Chief Minister is appointed by the President, not the Lieutenant Governor.
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 75(5) mandates that a Minister must be a member of Parliament within 6 months of appointment, establishing the institutional link between legislature and executive in parliamentary government.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Collective responsibility under Article 75(3) ensures the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha; Ministers hold office only till they enjoy confidence of Parliament, resignable on no-confidence motion.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister (head of government), not the President (head of state); the President exercises powers on the aid and advice of Council of Ministers under Article 74.
Consider the following statements:
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) was an independent advisory body established in 1952, not an organ of the Planning Commission. It was headed by the Prime Minister and included Chief Ministers and Union Cabinet Ministers.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Economic and Social Planning is placed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule, enabling both Union and State governments to legislate on the subject.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 243G of the Constitution mandates that Panchayats shall be assigned the task of preparing plans for economic development and social justice, promoting decentralized planning at the grassroots level.
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
Detailed Explanation:
PESA Act, 1996 aims to extend Panchayati Raj institutions to Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, ensuring self-governance, recognizing traditional rights over natural resources, and protecting tribal communities from exploitation.
It does NOT create autonomous regions – that function is served by the Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)), which provides for autonomous district councils in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Consider the following statements:
- The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 75(3) states the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only, not to the entire Parliament (which includes Rajya Sabha).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 75(2) provides that Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, though they are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 78(a) mandates the Prime Minister shall communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the President.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- The Prime Minister
- The Chairman, Finance Commission
- Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the NDC and a core member.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Chairman, Finance Commission is not a member of the NDC; the Finance Commission is a separate constitutional body.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Ministers of the Union Cabinet are members of the NDC.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Chief Ministers of all States (and formerly UTs with legislatures) are members of the NDC.
Therefore, 1, 3 and 4 only constitute the National Development Council.
Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
- take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- speak in the Lok Sabha
- vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Attorney General can be named a member of any committee of Parliament and participate in its proceedings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Attorney General has the right to speak in Lok Sabha under Article 88.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Attorney General has no right to vote in either House as explicitly stated in Article 88.
Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha (under Article 89) and is not a member of the House. However, the Deputy Chairman is elected from among the members of Rajya Sabha, making him/her a member of the House.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Electoral College for President (under Article 54) consists of only elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures, excluding nominated members. The Electoral College for Vice-President (under Article 66) includes all members of both Houses — both elected and nominated — giving nominated MPs voting rights in Vice-Presidential elections.
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
Detailed Explanation:
Article 253 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions.
This power is exercised without requiring consent of any state, as it falls under Parliament's legislative competence to fulfill India's international obligations. This is one of the five extraordinary circumstances under which Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List.
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 37 of the Constitution explicitly states that the provisions contained in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) are "fundamental in the governance of the country".
Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts and protect individual liberties, while Fundamental Duties are moral obligations for citizens—neither is described as "fundamental for governance" in the Constitution. Only DPSP carry this specific constitutional mandate.
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
Detailed Explanation:
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.
The Gram Sabha receives claims, verifies them, prepares maps of claimed areas, and passes a resolution which is then screened by the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) and finally approved by the District Level Committee (DLC).
Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in:
Detailed Explanation:
Economic Justice is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble (securing social, economic and political justice to all citizens) and in Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 38 mandates a social order permeated by social, economic and political justice; Article 39 directs equitable distribution of resources and prevention of wealth concentration).
Fundamental Rights (Part III) primarily ensure political and civil justice (equality, freedoms, protection against discrimination) but do not explicitly mention economic justice as an objective.
UPSC Prelims 2013 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
UPSC Prelims 2013 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2013?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2013?
- Environment & Ecology: 21 questions (21%)
- Indian Economy: 20 questions (20%)
- Indian Polity: 17 questions (17%)
- Science & Technology: 11 questions (11%)
- World Geography: 9 questions (9%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 8 questions (8%)
- Indian Geography: 6 questions (6%)
- Modern History: 6 questions (6%)
- Ancient History: 2 questions (2%)