UPSC CSE Prelims
Current Affairs Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Current Affairs in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
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Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most Spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
- Arujna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
- Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
- Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
The question asks to identify correctly matched pairs of sports awards with their descriptions. Out of the four pairs given, only Pair 1 (Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) and Pair 3 (Dronacharya Award) are correctly matched, making the correct answer 'Only two'.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is indeed given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of the last four years.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Arjuna Award is given for outstanding performance over the previous four years (not lifetime achievement); the Dhyan Chand Award is given for lifetime achievement in sports.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Dronacharya Award is correctly described as an award to honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.
❌ Pair 4 – Incorrect: Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is given to corporate entities, NGOs, and sports bodies for sports promotion and development (not to individual sportspersons after retirement).
📝 Short Notes: National Sports Awards of India
| Award Name | Purpose | Key Features |
|---|---|---|
| Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award | Highest sporting honour of India | For spectacular and outstanding performance over the last 4 years; formerly known as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award |
| Arjuna Award | Outstanding performance in sports | For good performance over 4 years with leadership, sportsmanship and discipline |
| Dronacharya Award | Excellence in coaching | For coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons to excel in international events |
| Dhyan Chand Award | Lifetime achievement in sports | For sportspersons who have contributed during their career and continue promoting sports after retirement |
| Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar | Sports promotion and development | Given to corporate entities, NGOs, and sports bodies for visible role in sports promotion |
| Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy | University sports excellence | For overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments |
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :
- It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- The official mascot was named 'Thambi'.
- The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
The 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 was indeed India's first time hosting this prestigious event, held in Mamallapuram near Chennai. The official mascot was correctly named 'Thambi' (Tamil for younger brother). However, the trophies are reversed: the Open section receives the Hamilton-Russell Cup, while the Women's section receives the Vera Menchik Cup (named after the first Women's World Chess Champion).
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 was the first time India hosted this event, held in Mamallapuram/Chennai from July 28 to August 9, 2022.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The official mascot was named 'Thambi', a Tamil word meaning 'younger brother', representing Tamil Nadu's culture and hospitality.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Open section trophy is the Hamilton-Russell Cup, not the Vera Menchik Cup.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Women's section trophy is the Vera Menchik Cup, not the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
📝 Short Notes: Chess Olympiad Trophies
| Section | Trophy Name | Named After |
|---|---|---|
| Open Section | Hamilton-Russell Cup | Frederick Hamilton-Russell (British diplomat and chess patron) |
| Women's Section | Vera Menchik Cup | Vera Menchik (first Women's World Chess Champion, 1927-1944) |
- 44th Chess Olympiad 2022: First held in India at Mamallapuram, Tamil Nadu (July 28 – August 9, 2022)
- Record Participation: Nearly 190 teams in Open and over 160 teams in Women's section
- First-ever Torch Relay: The Olympic torch was carried across multiple Indian cities before the event
- Multiple Indian Teams: As host nation, India fielded multiple teams in both sections
- Winners 2022: Open section - Uzbekistan; Women's section - Ukraine
Consider the following countries:
- Bulgaria
- Czech Republic
- Hungary
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Only two
Among the six countries listed, only Hungary and Romania share a land border with Ukraine. Hungary borders Ukraine to the southwest, while Romania shares a border to the south. The other four countries—Bulgaria, Czech Republic, Latvia, and Lithuania—do not share direct land borders with Ukraine.
Country-wise Analysis:
✅ Hungary – Shares border: Located to the southwest of Ukraine with a common land boundary.
✅ Romania – Shares border: Located to the south/southwest of Ukraine with a significant land boundary.
❌ Bulgaria – No border: Located south of Romania; separated from Ukraine by Romania.
❌ Czech Republic – No border: Located in Central Europe, west of Ukraine, with no direct boundary.
❌ Latvia – No border: Located in the Baltic region, north of Ukraine, separated by Belarus.
❌ Lithuania – No border: Located in the Baltic region, northwest of Ukraine, separated by Belarus.
📝 Short Notes: Ukraine's Land Borders
| Neighboring Country | Direction | Border Length (approx.) |
|---|---|---|
| Russia | East & Northeast | ~2,295 km (longest) |
| Belarus | North | ~1,084 km |
| Poland | West | ~535 km |
| Slovakia | West | ~97 km (shortest) |
| Hungary | Southwest | ~128 km |
| Romania | South/Southwest | ~601 km |
| Moldova | South | ~1,202 km |
- Ukraine shares land borders with seven countries in total.
- Among the given list, only Hungary and Romania are Ukraine's neighbors.
- The Czech Republic is close but separated by Slovakia.
- Baltic states (Latvia, Lithuania) are separated by Belarus.
- Bulgaria lies south of Romania and has no direct access to Ukraine.
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Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Both statements are individually correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The curative focus of India's public healthcare system stems from historical policy priorities and resource allocation patterns, not from the constitutional decentralization of health services.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: India's public healthcare system has historically emphasized curative care through hospitals and dispensaries, while preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative services receive limited budgetary and infrastructural support.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries' fall under the State List (Entry 6), making States primarily responsible for organizing and delivering health services.
Relationship: The decentralized administrative structure (Statement-II) describes the constitutional framework for health governance but does not cause or explain the curative-heavy approach (Statement-I). The latter is a result of policy choices, funding models, and infrastructure development priorities rather than federalism itself.
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
- It is safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
- Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
- It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Among the four statements about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), only statements 2 and 3 are correct. JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme under NHM aimed at reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women through cash incentives.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: JSY is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM), not a state health department intervention.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The primary objective of JSY is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting safe institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: JSY provides cash incentives to promote institutional delivery, particularly targeting BPL, SC, and ST households.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Providing free public health facilities to sick infants up to one year is a feature of Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), not JSY.
📝 Short Notes: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
- Launch Year: 2005 under National Rural Health Mission (now NHM)
- Nature: 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme with conditional cash transfer
- Primary Objective: Reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional deliveries
- Target Beneficiaries: Pregnant women from BPL families, SC/ST communities, especially in Low Performing States (LPS)
- Cash Assistance: Varies by state category (LPS vs HPS) and rural/urban areas; includes assistance for ASHA workers
- Distinction from JSSK: JSSK (2011) provides free delivery services, transport, and care for sick newborns up to 1 year; JSY focuses on cash incentives for institutional delivery
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
- It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
- It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Only three
The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy is a comprehensive initiative addressing both nutritional and non-nutritional causes of anaemia in India. Out of the four statements, three are correct while Statement 1 is incorrect as it mentions calcium supplementation instead of Iron Folic Acid supplementation.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The strategy provides prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation (not calcium) to pre-school children, adolescents, pregnant women, and women of reproductive age.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The strategy promotes delayed cord clamping for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) at birth to improve infant iron reserves up to 6 months.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Periodic deworming is provided to children (1-19 years) bi-annually on National Deworming Day (10th February and 10th August) and to women of reproductive age and pregnant women.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The strategy addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis through integrated screening and treatment.
Consider the following
- Aarogya Setu
- CoWIN
- Digi Locker
- DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four digital platforms mentioned are built on open-source frameworks, making their source code publicly available for transparency, collaboration, and innovation. While Aarogya Setu was initially proprietary, the government later released its source code as open-source in 2020.
✅ Aarogya Setu – Correct: Initially closed-source but was made open-source by the government in May 2020, with code published on GitHub.
✅ CoWIN – Correct: Built using open-source technologies and the government released its source code as open-source in June 2021.
✅ DigiLocker – Correct: Developed on an open-source Digital Locker System platform, enabling secure storage and sharing of documents.
✅ DIKSHA – Correct: Built on the open-source Sunbird platform developed under the EkStep Foundation initiative.
📝 Short Notes: Government Open-Source Digital Platforms
- Aarogya Setu: COVID-19 contact tracing app; source code made public on GitHub in May 2020 for Android and iOS versions
- CoWIN (COVID Vaccine Intelligence Network): Vaccination registration and certificate platform; made open-source in June 2021 to enable global adoption
- DigiLocker: Digital document storage platform under Digital India; uses open-source architecture for secure document issuance and verification
- DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing): National teacher platform and learning resource repository; built on Sunbird open-source platform developed by EkStep Foundation
- Benefits of Open-Source: Transparency, security through public scrutiny, cost-effectiveness, customization, and collaborative improvement
- India Stack: These platforms align with India's broader open-source digital public goods approach, enabling scalability and reusability
Consider the following statements:
- The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
- The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements contain inaccuracies regarding the institutional nature and funding of the India Sanitation Coalition and the National Institute of Urban Affairs.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform launched in 2015 that brings together private sector, government, civil society, and experts to work on sanitation issues. It is not funded by the World Health Organization (WHO). ISC operates through a partnership model involving various stakeholders but WHO is not listed as a funding agency.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act since 1976, functioning as India's premier urban think tank. It is not an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, but rather an autonomous institution that works closely with the ministry and other stakeholders to provide research and innovative solutions for urban challenges.
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
- Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
- As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
- It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 3 only
The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a digital health ecosystem by providing unique Health IDs to citizens, enabling seamless access to health records across the country. However, participation in ABDM is voluntary for both citizens and healthcare facilities (public or private), and it does not mandate universal coverage.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Adoption of ABDM by private and public hospitals is voluntary, not mandatory. Healthcare facilities can choose to participate based on their management decisions.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While ABDM aims to facilitate digital health infrastructure, it does not mandate every citizen to be part of it. Participation is consent-based and voluntary for all citizens.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: ABDM provides seamless portability across India through a unique Health ID (Personal Health Identifier), allowing citizens to access their health records from anywhere in the country.
📝 Short Notes: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)
- Launch: Launched on 27 September 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
- Objective: To create a national digital health ecosystem that supports universal health coverage in an efficient, accessible, and affordable manner
- Key Components: Health ID (unique 14-digit identification number), DigiDoctor (registry of doctors and healthcare professionals), Health Facility Registry, and Personal Health Records (PHR)
- Voluntary Participation: Participation is voluntary for citizens, doctors, and healthcare facilities (both public and private)
- Data Privacy: Follows strict consent-based framework where citizens have full control over their health data
- Portability: Enables seamless access to health records across different states and healthcare providers through unique Health ID
- Integration: Integrates with existing health schemes like Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY and other government health programs
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship :
- The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
- New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
The finalists for the ICC World Test Championship (2019-2021) were determined based on the Percentage of Points (PCT) earned, not the absolute number of matches won. This system was adopted to ensure fairness given the varying number of matches played by different teams due to COVID-19 disruptions.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The finalists were decided by the Percentage of Points (PCT) earned from total points contested, not by the number of matches won.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: New Zealand was ranked ahead of England due to a higher PCT (70.0% vs 64.1%), even though England won more matches (11) than New Zealand (7) during the tournament cycle.
📝 Short Notes: ICC World Test Championship
- Format: The ICC World Test Championship is a league competition for Test cricket, featuring the top nine Test-playing nations competing over a two-year cycle.
- Points System (2019-2021): Teams earned 120 points for a win, 60 for a draw, 40 for a tie, and 0 for a loss in each Test series.
- Percentage of Points (PCT): PCT = (Points Won / Points Contested) × 100. This metric was used for rankings to account for unequal matches played.
- COVID-19 Impact: The pandemic led to series cancellations and postponements, making PCT the fairest ranking criterion instead of absolute points or wins.
- Inaugural Final (2021): New Zealand defeated India at Southampton to become the first World Test Champions.
- Qualified Teams (2019-2021): India (PCT 72.2%) and New Zealand (PCT 70.0%) qualified for the final.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
- The official motto for this Olympics is 'A New World'.
- Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this, Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
This question tests knowledge about the 32nd Summer Olympics held in Tokyo in 2021. Statement 1 is incorrect as the official motto was different, while Statement 2 correctly identifies the new sports added to the Games.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The official motto for the 32nd Summer Olympics (Tokyo 2020) was "United by Emotion", not "A New World". The motto "A New World" was used for the Rio Olympics 2016.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Under new IOC rules, Tokyo Olympics included six new sports: Baseball/Softball, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Sport Climbing, along with new mixed-team events in traditional sports.
📝 Short Notes: Tokyo 2020 Olympics (32nd Summer Olympics)
- Year & Location: Held in Tokyo, Japan in 2021 (postponed from 2020 due to COVID-19 pandemic)
- Official Motto: "United by Emotion"
- New Sports Added: Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, Baseball, and Softball (6 new sports)
- Innovation: First Olympics to allow host cities to propose additional sports under new IOC flexibility rules
- Other Additions: New mixed-team events in traditional sports like athletics, swimming, and judo; new forms of basketball (3x3) and cycling (BMX freestyle)
- Context: Rio 2016 Olympics used the motto "A New World" and was the 31st Summer Olympics
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
- Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
- Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
- The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The question asks to identify statements that are not correct. All three statements contain inaccuracies regarding Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. Statement 1 incorrectly classifies these awards as titles under Article 18(1), Statement 2 incorrectly mentions a single suspension, and Statement 3 incorrectly states a maximum limit of five awards.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution; they are civilian honors that do not confer any legal privileges or status, as clarified by judicial interpretation.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Padma Awards were suspended not once but four times—in 1978, 1979, 1993, and 1997—due to various controversies and government decisions.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The general guideline restricts Bharat Ratna to a maximum of three recipients per year, not five; this limit was exceeded in 1999 (four awards) and 2024 (five awards).
📝 Short Notes: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Status | Not titles under Article 18(1); they are civilian honors that do not prevent recipients from using them as suffixes but confer no legal privileges |
| Bharat Ratna | Highest civilian award; instituted in 1954; generally limited to 3 per year (exceeded in 1999 with 4 and 2024 with 5 awards) |
| Padma Awards Categories | Padma Vibhushan (exceptional service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service), Padma Shri (distinguished service in any field) |
| Institution Year | 1954 (both Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards) |
| Suspensions | Padma Awards suspended in 1978, 1979, 1993, and 1997 |
| Fields Covered | Art, literature, science, public service, sports, medicine, social work, civil service, trade and industry |
| Monetary Grant | Bharat Ratna: No monetary grant; Padma Awards: Carry no monetary grant (only certificate and medallion) |
Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
- American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
- The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
- Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
The Laureus World Sports Awards, instituted in 2000, have honored exceptional athletes across various sports. Statement 2 is incorrect because tennis players, not Formula One drivers, have dominated the awards.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Tiger Woods won the inaugural Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award in 2000 at Monte Carlo, becoming the first-ever recipient of this prestigious honor.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Tennis players have won the Sportsman of the Year award 11 times (Roger Federer-5, Rafael Nadal-2, Novak Djokovic-4), while Formula One drivers won only 4 times (Michael Schumacher-2, Sebastian Vettel-1, Lewis Hamilton-1), making tennis the dominant sport, not Formula One.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Roger Federer holds the record with five Laureus World Sportsman of the Year awards (2005, 2006, 2007, 2008, 2018), making him the most decorated individual in this category.
📝 Short Notes: Laureus World Sports Awards
- Inception: Established in 2000 by Daimler and Richemont to honor sporting excellence worldwide
- First Ceremony: Held in Monte Carlo, Monaco in 2000
- Main Categories: Sportsman of the Year, Sportswoman of the Year, Team of the Year, Breakthrough of the Year, Comeback of the Year, Sporting Moment of the Year
- Record Holders: Roger Federer (5 Sportsman awards), Serena Williams (5 Sportswoman awards)
- Voting: Winners selected by the Laureus World Sports Academy comprising over 70 legendary athletes
- Indian Winners: Sachin Tendulkar (2011 for Indian cricket team's World Cup win), Vishwanathan Anand (nominated multiple times)
With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
- All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
- All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
- The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3 only
This question tests knowledge of labor laws and rights applicable to casual workers in India. Statement 1 is incorrect as EPF coverage is not automatic for all casual workers, while statements 2 and 3 are correct based on Supreme Court rulings and payment of wages regulations.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Not all casual workers are automatically entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage. EPF coverage applies to establishments with 20 or more employees, and casual workers must have rendered continuous service (at least 240 days in a year or 206 days for 5-day week offices) to qualify for regularization and EPF benefits.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Supreme Court has ruled that casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment as they fall within the definition of 'employee' under various labor laws including the EPF Act, which defines employees broadly to include those engaged directly or indirectly in an establishment's work.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Under the Payment of Wages Act and related regulations, the government can issue notifications mandating that specific establishments or industries must pay wages only through bank accounts to ensure transparency and prevent exploitation.
📝 Short Notes: Rights of Casual Workers in India
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| EPF Coverage | Applicable to establishments with 20+ employees; casual workers need 240 days (206 for 5-day week) continuous service for regularization and EPF benefits |
| Working Hours & Overtime | Casual workers entitled to normal working hours and overtime payment as per labor laws; SC has affirmed their status as 'employees' |
| Wage Payment | Government can mandate payment through bank accounts under Payment of Wages Act for transparency |
| Regularization Scheme | Casual Labourers (Grant of Temporary Status and Regularization) Scheme, 1993 provides for temporary status and eventual regularization |
| Definition of Employee | Section 2(f) of EPF Act defines 'employee' broadly to include those engaged directly or indirectly in establishment's work |
With reference to Water Credit, consider the following statements:
- It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
- It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
- It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 Only
WaterCredit is an initiative of Water.org that uses microfinance tools to empower individuals to access water and sanitation solutions through small loans, enabling them to meet their needs without depending on subsidies. It is not a WHO or World Bank initiative.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: WaterCredit applies microfinance principles to the water and sanitation sector, providing small loans to individuals and households for water and sanitation infrastructure.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: WaterCredit is an initiative of Water.org, an international non-profit organization, not a global initiative launched under the aegis of WHO and World Bank.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The program aims to empower poor people to access water and sanitation through affordable financing, reducing their dependence on subsidies and enabling sustainable solutions.