BPSC CCE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in BPSC CCE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?
Detailed Explanation:
National Extension Service (NES) was established in 1953 as India's first programme of community development on a permanent basis.
Cooperation Movement began in 1904 (Cooperative Credit Societies Act) but was not a community development programme.
Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched in 1978-80, much later than NES.
NES aimed at providing institutional framework for rural development through multipurpose village-level workers and block-level administration.
The phrase 'equality before law' used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
Detailed Explanation:
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.
'Equality before law' is a negative concept borrowed from the British Constitution, ensuring no special privileges and that all are equal before ordinary courts.
'Equal protection of laws' is a positive concept borrowed from the US Constitution (14th Amendment), allowing the State to make reasonable classifications to ensure substantive equality.
What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on 9 December 1946 and the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.
The total duration was 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days, during which the Assembly met for 166 days spread over 11 sessions to draft the world's longest written constitution under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
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The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
Detailed Explanation:
Article 164(2) of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
This is a core principle of Parliamentary democracy – the Council remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Legislative Assembly, which can pass a no-confidence motion to remove it.
Consider the following statements:
In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of
- decision-making powers
- system as a whole
- judicial powers
- administrative powers
Which of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 mandates decentralization of decision-making powers to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for local self-governance.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Amendment requires decentralization of the system as a whole, transferring functions, funds, and functionaries to PRIs under the three-tier structure.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Judicial powers are not decentralized to PRIs; the judiciary remains under the domain of the State and Union as per the Constitution.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Administrative powers related to the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule are to be decentralized to PRIs for local administration.
The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 80(1)(a) provides for 12 members to be nominated by the President from persons with special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 80(4) mandates that the remaining members (up to 238 representatives) are indirectly elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: No direct election by citizens exists for Rajya Sabha; it is purely an indirectly elected Upper House.
Answer: Since statements 1 and 3 are correct, the answer is Option 4 (More than one of the above).
Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Collegium system is used by the Supreme Court of India for appointing and transferring judges to higher judiciary through a collegium of senior judges.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Appellate jurisdiction under Articles 132-136 allows the Supreme Court to hear appeals against decisions of High Courts and tribunals.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Original jurisdiction under Article 131 empowers the Supreme Court to hear disputes directly between the Union and States or between States.
Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct, the answer is Option 4 (More than one of the above).
The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Detailed Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution, providing constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Article 243F specifies the disqualifications for membership of Panchayats, stating that a person shall not be less than 21 years of age to be chosen to fill a seat in a Panchayat.
This is different from the general voting age of 18 years for elections, which is the minimum age for contesting elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (25 years for Lok Sabha).
Which committee suggested the enactment of the Competition Act, 2002?
Detailed Explanation:
The S. V. S. Raghavan Committee (1999) recommended the enactment of a new competition law to replace the outdated MRTP Act, 1969.
Based on this recommendation, the Competition Act, 2002 was enacted, establishing the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to regulate anti-competitive practices and promote fair competition in markets.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in
Detailed Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly convened for the first time on 9 December 1946. Two days later, on 11 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was unanimously elected as its Chairman.
This election occurred in December 1946, not in September, October, or November of that year.
Therefore, December 1946 AD is the correct answer, making Option 3 correct.
Which of the following is not a part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) lists 29 subjects assigned to Panchayats for rural local self-governance, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
Libraries, Fuel and Fodder, and Technical Training are entries 18, 14, and 17 respectively in the Eleventh Schedule. Rural Sports does not appear anywhere in this Schedule.
Therefore, Rural Sports is not part of the Eleventh Schedule, making Option 3 the correct answer.
How many (number) ‘Demands for Grants’ are put before the Parliament as a part of the Annual Budget in pursuance to Article 113 of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that Demands for Grants be presented to the Lok Sabha for all ministries/departments. The number varies annually based on government structure and ministries.
In Union Budget 2024-25, 109 Demands for Grants were presented, while in 2023-24, there were 103. The count fluctuates with creation/merger/reorganization of ministries and departments.
Therefore, no single fixed number exists, making Option 5 (None of the above/More than one of the above) the correct answer.
The members of a State Legislative Council are not chosen by which of the following categories of persons?
Detailed Explanation:
State Legislative Council members are elected/nominated under Article 171(3) through: (a) MLAs, (b) local bodies (municipalities/panchayats), (c) teachers, (d) graduates, (e) Governor's nominees.
Industrialists have no designated constituency or quota—they may contest only if they qualify as graduates/teachers or are nominated by the Governor for special knowledge, not as a separate category.
Therefore, industrialists as a distinct category do not choose Council members, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Which of the following is a Parliamentary Committee relating to delegation of power to make rules and regulations to the Executive?
Detailed Explanation:
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is a Parliamentary standing committee that examines rules, regulations, and bye-laws framed by the Executive under powers delegated by Parliament through parent Acts.
The other options—Executive Legislation, Administrative Legislation, and Delegated Legislation—are not official names of any Parliamentary committee in India.
Therefore, the Committee on Subordinate Legislation monitors delegated rule-making, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Detailed Explanation:
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution explicitly deals with suits and proceedings by or against the Government of India and State Governments, specifying legal capacity and procedural requirements.
Government contracts fall under Article 299, Attorney General under Articles 76 and 165, and restrictions on trade and commerce under Articles 301-307 (Part XIII).
Therefore, Article 300 specifically addresses suits and proceedings, making Option 1 the correct answer.